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ISLAM AND THE CHRISTIAN BIBLE
N. H. Ibanga
26 December 2001
1.Islam
alleges that the Bible is the word of God that has been corrupted. However,
Islam does not hesitate to quote the Bible as having predicted the coming
of Mohammed. Which parts of the Bible are corrupted? When and by whom were
they corrupted? Can you be sure that the Bible verses you quote to authenticate
Mohammed were not also corrupted?
2.God
put a blessing on anyone who reads and keeps those things that are written
in the revelation that Jesus gave to John to publish [Revelation 1:3].
He put a curse on anyone who adds to or subtracts from the word of this
revelation [Revelation 22: 18 � 19]. Are words of the book of Revelation
also corrupted?
3.Mohammed
did not write the Quran. Someone else consolidated his sayings from numerous
sources after his death. Are we to simply take your word for it that it
has not been corrupted? How can you prove that the person who consolidated
the sayings in one book did not discard a version of a saying that he did
not particularly care for?
4.Islam
rejects the concept of the Trinity, i.e., the Triune nature of God [Father,
Son, and Holy Spirit]. However, many verses in the Quran start with �We�.
For example, Quran 15:9 states in part �We have, without doubt, sent down
the message �..�. Who does �we� refer to? Why �we� and not �I�?
5.Why
do you trust the word allegedly delivered by the Angel Gabriel to Mohammed
and yet you reject those he delivered to Mary (the mother of Jesus) announcing
the impending birth of Jesus and the fact that He will be called the Son
of the Highest [Luke 1: 26 � 33]? Why would God only protect the message
delivered to Mohammed and not those delivered by the same Angel Gabriel
to Daniel [Daniel Chapter 9], Zecharias [Luke 1] and Mary?When
Balaam [Numbers 22 � 23] tried to put a curse on the Jews, did God not
send His Angel to turn the curse into a blessing, i.e. protect His own?
6.The
Quran acknowledges that Jesus was a sinless man. It also states that Mohammed
was asked to pray for forgiveness of his sins. Does it make sense that
all the Prophets before Jesus were sinners like any human being, then came
Jesus (the sinless one), followed by another sinful Prophet? Why would
God stop after Mohammed and not continue to send other sinful Prophets?
It seems the logical place to stop would have been at perfection, namely
Jesus.
7.Why
do you say that Mohammed is the greatest Prophet when Jesus had stated
that John the Baptist not only was the greatest man on earth, but also
the last Prophet [Luke 7: 20 � 28]?
8.If
Mohammed was sent to all people, why then did God (who created the different
languages at Babel) not return all of mankind to the same language as before?
Was Arabic the language of the world before Babel? Does this not reek of
Arab imperialism? In contrast, Jesus revealed to John the beloved that
during the period of Jacob�s trouble, Angels will preach the word of God
in EVERY language on earth [Revelation 14:6] so that none will have a valid
excuse for not heeding the warning.
9.Jesus
taught to pray in private [Matthew 6:6] and God would reward in public.
He specifically warned people not to emulate the Pharisees [Matthew 6:5]
who conspicuously pray in public for show. Mohammed teaches that public
prayer is rewarded 25X over private prayer. Why?
10.Jesus
clearly taught (when asked) that there is no marriage in Heaven [Luke 20:
27 � 35; Matthew 22: 24 - 30]. Mohammed promises carnal pleasures in the
spiritual world, again contrary to what others had said before him. Why?
Could one not assume that these were promised because humans were most
likely to fall for these as well as the accumulation of earthly spoils
taken from non-believers whom one had killed �for God�? In contrast, Jesus
advises that we store up our treasures in Heaven where neither thieves,
moths nor rust cannot devour them [Matthew 6:20]. Jesus also said in Matthew
15: 9, �But in vain they do worship Me, teaching for doctrines the commandments
of men�.
11.Jesus
taught that those who reject the message of the gospel should be left alone
till judgement day [Matthew 13: 24 � 30, 37 � 43]. This was so that one
does not kill anyone who, with time, would have seen the error of his ways.
Mohammed says to kill them [Quran 9:29, 47:4]. Why? Never has a Prophet
sent by God ever reversed anything a previous Prophet ever said. Why is
Mohammed the first to do this? Isn�t it a serious offence to kill the innocent?
Are you sure then that the same God sent him?
12.The
Bible predicts that this present earth will pass away [Revelation 21:1,
2nd Peter 3: 10 � 12]. The original stone tablets on which the
Ten Commandments were written by God Himself are in the Ark of the Covenant,
under the Temple of God in Heaven [Revelation 11:19]. These stones are
the only piece of this present earth that one can deduce will survive the
destruction of the earth. One can also deduce that every piece of paper,
stone tablet, clay or whatever that had been used to print the Bible or
Quran will melt away and be destroyed in the end. With this backdrop, does
the Quran prescribe death to anyone who either intentionally or unintentionally
steps on a page of the Quran, which we now know, will not stand before
God in the end?
13.A
person who refuses to become a Muslim is allowed to live if he pays taxes
to the Muslim. Does this mean that one can buy salvation? Mohammed claims
that he was given the right to intercede for people on judgement day. Does
it mean that he will intercede for non-believers who paid taxes to Muslims
but had rejected his message? What does this tax do for God?
14.If
good works can earn salvation and I have kept ALL the commandments of Sharia
but DO NOT elevate Mohammed above Jesus, would I not be saved by my innumerable
good works?
15.On
the contrary, if what is attributed to Jesus is true, i.e., that if you
refuse to believe in Him there is no amount of good works that will land
you in Heaven [Matthew 19: 16 � 24], are Muslims not wasting time and taking
a costly risk in assuming that their good works will save them? Will there
not be boasting (which is forbidden) in paradise by those who had more
good works than others? Isn�t this again contrary to what other Prophets
had said?
16.The
Quran does not mention that Jesus will return to rule the world. Where
did Islam get the �tradition� of teaching that Jesus will return to lead
them in a fight against the unbelievers? Could such an important thing
be omitted from the Quran?
17.Jesus
stated emphatically �I am the way. No one can get to the Father except
through me�[John 14:6]. He also said that he who is not for Him is against
Him [Matthew 12:30]. If you elevate a sinner like Mohammed above sinless
Jesus, does that not mean that you are against Him? Will He spare you then
when He comes back to lead God�s army against the unbelievers? Why isn�t
Mohammed the one to come back and lead this army like he did before?
When all is said and done, there is ONE question one must answer for oneself. Who is the safer bet for eternity?
If
Mohammed is right and works alone can save one, I conclude that one does
not need to believe that Mohammed was a Prophet of God to get saved. Remember
that Mohammed�s intercession cannot alter (override) the decrees of damnation
on individuals written in the Quran. I further conclude that a lot of atheists,
Christians, Bhuddists, and what have you who actually do good works will
get to paradise.
If
it turns out that Jesus actually DID say (in effect, if not in the exact
words written) those things attributed to Him, are Muslims not in the same
boat as atheists, polytheists etc, who are condemned to hell? Unlike Mohammed,
Jesus claimed the power to forgive sins [Matthew 9:6]. He clearly stated
that works alone (without Him) cannot save anyone. His intercession has
no limitations like Mohammed�s. Is Jesus therefore the safer bet (can�t
lose) of the two?