ISLAM AND THE CHRISTIAN BIBLE
N. H. Ibanga
26 December 2001
1.Islam alleges that the Bible is the word of God that has been corrupted. However, Islam does not hesitate to quote the Bible as having predicted the coming of Mohammed. Which parts of the Bible are corrupted? When and by whom were they corrupted? Can you be sure that the Bible verses you quote to authenticate Mohammed were not also corrupted?
2.God put a blessing on anyone who reads and keeps those things that are written in the revelation that Jesus gave to John to publish [Revelation 1:3]. He put a curse on anyone who adds to or subtracts from the word of this revelation [Revelation 22: 18 – 19]. Are words of the book of Revelation also corrupted?
3.Mohammed did not write the Quran. Someone else consolidated his sayings from numerous sources after his death. Are we to simply take your word for it that it has not been corrupted? How can you prove that the person who consolidated the sayings in one book did not discard a version of a saying that he did not particularly care for?
4.Islam rejects the concept of the Trinity, i.e., the Triune nature of God [Father, Son, and Holy Spirit]. However, many verses in the Quran start with “We”. For example, Quran 15:9 states in part “We have, without doubt, sent down the message …..”. Who does ‘we’ refer to? Why ‘we’ and not ‘I’?
5.Why do you trust the word allegedly delivered by the Angel Gabriel to Mohammed and yet you reject those he delivered to Mary (the mother of Jesus) announcing the impending birth of Jesus and the fact that He will be called the Son of the Highest [Luke 1: 26 – 33]? Why would God only protect the message delivered to Mohammed and not those delivered by the same Angel Gabriel to Daniel [Daniel Chapter 9], Zecharias [Luke 1] and Mary?When Balaam [Numbers 22 – 23] tried to put a curse on the Jews, did God not send His Angel to turn the curse into a blessing, i.e. protect His own?
6.The Quran acknowledges that Jesus was a sinless man. It also states that Mohammed was asked to pray for forgiveness of his sins. Does it make sense that all the Prophets before Jesus were sinners like any human being, then came Jesus (the sinless one), followed by another sinful Prophet? Why would God stop after Mohammed and not continue to send other sinful Prophets? It seems the logical place to stop would have been at perfection, namely Jesus.
7.Why do you say that Mohammed is the greatest Prophet when Jesus had stated that John the Baptist not only was the greatest man on earth, but also the last Prophet [Luke 7: 20 – 28]?
8.If Mohammed was sent to all people, why then did God (who created the different languages at Babel) not return all of mankind to the same language as before? Was Arabic the language of the world before Babel? Does this not reek of Arab imperialism? In contrast, Jesus revealed to John the beloved that during the period of Jacob’s trouble, Angels will preach the word of God in EVERY language on earth [Revelation 14:6] so that none will have a valid excuse for not heeding the warning.
9.Jesus taught to pray in private [Matthew 6:6] and God would reward in public. He specifically warned people not to emulate the Pharisees [Matthew 6:5] who conspicuously pray in public for show. Mohammed teaches that public prayer is rewarded 25X over private prayer. Why?
10.Jesus clearly taught (when asked) that there is no marriage in Heaven [Luke 20: 27 – 35; Matthew 22: 24 - 30]. Mohammed promises carnal pleasures in the spiritual world, again contrary to what others had said before him. Why? Could one not assume that these were promised because humans were most likely to fall for these as well as the accumulation of earthly spoils taken from non-believers whom one had killed “for God”? In contrast, Jesus advises that we store up our treasures in Heaven where neither thieves, moths nor rust cannot devour them [Matthew 6:20]. Jesus also said in Matthew 15: 9, “But in vain they do worship Me, teaching for doctrines the commandments of men”.
11.Jesus taught that those who reject the message of the gospel should be left alone till judgement day [Matthew 13: 24 – 30, 37 – 43]. This was so that one does not kill anyone who, with time, would have seen the error of his ways. Mohammed says to kill them [Quran 9:29, 47:4]. Why? Never has a Prophet sent by God ever reversed anything a previous Prophet ever said. Why is Mohammed the first to do this? Isn’t it a serious offence to kill the innocent? Are you sure then that the same God sent him?
12.The Bible predicts that this present earth will pass away [Revelation 21:1, 2nd Peter 3: 10 – 12]. The original stone tablets on which the Ten Commandments were written by God Himself are in the Ark of the Covenant, under the Temple of God in Heaven [Revelation 11:19]. These stones are the only piece of this present earth that one can deduce will survive the destruction of the earth. One can also deduce that every piece of paper, stone tablet, clay or whatever that had been used to print the Bible or Quran will melt away and be destroyed in the end. With this backdrop, does the Quran prescribe death to anyone who either intentionally or unintentionally steps on a page of the Quran, which we now know, will not stand before God in the end?
13.A person who refuses to become a Muslim is allowed to live if he pays taxes to the Muslim. Does this mean that one can buy salvation? Mohammed claims that he was given the right to intercede for people on judgement day. Does it mean that he will intercede for non-believers who paid taxes to Muslims but had rejected his message? What does this tax do for God?
14.If good works can earn salvation and I have kept ALL the commandments of Sharia but DO NOT elevate Mohammed above Jesus, would I not be saved by my innumerable good works?
15.On the contrary, if what is attributed to Jesus is true, i.e., that if you refuse to believe in Him there is no amount of good works that will land you in Heaven [Matthew 19: 16 – 24], are Muslims not wasting time and taking a costly risk in assuming that their good works will save them? Will there not be boasting (which is forbidden) in paradise by those who had more good works than others? Isn’t this again contrary to what other Prophets had said?
16.The Quran does not mention that Jesus will return to rule the world. Where did Islam get the “tradition” of teaching that Jesus will return to lead them in a fight against the unbelievers? Could such an important thing be omitted from the Quran?
17.Jesus stated emphatically “I am the way. No one can get to the Father except through me”[John 14:6]. He also said that he who is not for Him is against Him [Matthew 12:30]. If you elevate a sinner like Mohammed above sinless Jesus, does that not mean that you are against Him? Will He spare you then when He comes back to lead God’s army against the unbelievers? Why isn’t Mohammed the one to come back and lead this army like he did before?
When all is said and done, there is ONE question one must answer for oneself. Who is the safer bet for eternity?
If Mohammed is right and works alone can save one, I conclude that one does not need to believe that Mohammed was a Prophet of God to get saved. Remember that Mohammed’s intercession cannot alter (override) the decrees of damnation on individuals written in the Quran. I further conclude that a lot of atheists, Christians, Bhuddists, and what have you who actually do good works will get to paradise.
If it turns out that Jesus actually DID say (in effect, if not in the exact words written) those things attributed to Him, are Muslims not in the same boat as atheists, polytheists etc, who are condemned to hell? Unlike Mohammed, Jesus claimed the power to forgive sins [Matthew 9:6]. He clearly stated that works alone (without Him) cannot save anyone. His intercession has no limitations like Mohammed’s. Is Jesus therefore the safer bet (can’t lose) of the two?